Dragan Matic <mlists(at)panforma(dot)co(dot)yu> writes:
> And isn't this:
> SELECT * from table where timestamp_column < to_timestamp('11/19/2007
> 15:46:09 PM','MM/DD/YYYY HH24:MI:SS')
> just doing the same thing that implicit string to timestamp conversion
> should have done in the first case?
No. The entire reason for existence of to_timestamp() is to accommodate
translation of formats that are too weird, ambiguous, or inconsistent
to be reasonable for the main timestamp input code to accept.
(Like this one.)
regards, tom lane