Re: invalid 'having' clause

OK, thanks. That seems to make sense.

regards
Iain
----- Original Message -----
From: "Tom Lane" <tgl(at)sss(dot)pgh(dot)pa(dot)us>
To: "Iain" <iain(at)mst(dot)co(dot)jp>
Cc: <pgsql-sql(at)postgresql(dot)org>
Sent: Thursday, December 02, 2004 11:54 AM
Subject: Re: [SQL] invalid 'having' clause

> "Iain" <iain(at)mst(dot)co(dot)jp> writes:
>> Just a quick question out of curiosity, I was just wondering if this is
>> supposed to be valid sql:
>
>> select count(*) as cnt
>> from sometable
>> group by somecolumn
>> having cnt > 1
>
> No. The HAVING clause logically executes before the SELECT output list
> does, so it makes no sense for it to refer to the output list entries.
>
> regards, tom lane
>
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