Re: getTiIme/Timestamp with TimeZone inconsistency

Oliver Jowett wrote:
> John Lister wrote:
>
>
>> However in TimestampUtils.getTime, this is initially done, but then
>> reversed further down and the supplied timezone is used as follows:
>>
>> if (ts.hasDate) {
>> // Rotate it into the requested timezone before we zero out
>> the date
>> .....
>> cal.setTime(new Date(useCal.getTime().getTime()));
>> useCal = cal;
>> }
>>
>> is there a reason for this as it seems inconsistent with getTimestamp
>> and the api docs?
>>
>
> I believe this is necessary so that the Time type's invariants (that
> day/month/year is Jan 1 1970 in the specified timezone) are satisfied.
> The driver extends the interpretation of getTime(int,Calender) to mean
> that the returned Time object will be valid for the specified Calendar,
> regardless of whether a timezone was present in the underlying DB or not.
>
> The underlying timezone, if present, is still used when constructing a
> milliseconds value, but the driver then rotates that resulting value
> into the target timezone. If we don't do that then you get the strange
> result that retrieving a time "01:35:42" while providing a Calendar will
> result in a Time object that does not display as 01:35:42 if you format
> it with that same Calendar. (I hesitate to say whether this is right or
> wrong, because as usual JDBC is woefully underspecified in this area,
> but it's certainly confusing at a minimum)
>
> -O
>
>

I agree the JDBC spec is vague, but I read the spec such that the
supplied calendar is *only* used if the server doesn't support a
timezone. I think my main concern is that setTimestamp behaves
differently to setTime. I'm not sure which is correct (i'd tend to the
former) but i think they should behave the same...

I'm not sure what the correct behaviour should be if the server has a
timezone and you specify one to use. Hopefully the app writer would only
use this case for none timezone columns/results.... maybe too much to
ask for :)

JOHN